QRZ! Ham Radio 5/QRZ Ham Radio Callsign Database - Volume 5.iso/files/infodata/pool_ext.txt

Text File | 1994-11-27 | 147.2 KB | 4,182 lines

4BA-1A.1 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter
wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control
operators?
   A. 3525-3775 kHz
   B. 3500-3525 kHz
   C. 3700-3750 kHz
   D. 3500-3550 kHz

4BA-1A.2 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter
wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control
operators?
   A. 3750-3775 kHz
   B. 3800-3850 kHz
   C. 3775-3800 kHz
   D. 3800-3825 kHz

4BA-1A.3 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter
wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control
operators?
   A. 7000-7025 kHz
   B. 7000-7050 kHz
   C. 7025-7050 kHz
   D. 7100-7150 kHz

4BA-1A.4 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter
wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control
operators?
   A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
   B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
   C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
   D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz

4BA-1A.5 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter
wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control
operators?
   A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
   B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
   C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
   D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz

4BA-1B.1 What is a ++++spurious emission++++ as defined in Part 97?
   A. An emission, on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth
of a transmission, the level of which may be reduced without
affecting the information being transmitted
   B. An emission, on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth
of a transmission, the level of which exceeds 25 microwatts
   C. An emission, on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth
of a transmission, the level of which exceeds 10 microwatts
   D. An emission, on frequencies outside the amateur bands, the
level of which exceeds 10 microwatts

4BA-1B.2 How much must the mean power of any spurious emission
from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier
frequency is below 30 MHz and the mean transmitted power is equal
to or greater than 5 watts?
   A. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and
less than 25 mW
   B. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and
less than 50 mW
   C. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and
less than 50 mW
   D. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and
less than 25 mW

4BA-1B.3 How much must the mean power of any spurious emission
from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier
frequency is above 30 MHz but below 225 MHz and the mean
transmitted power is greater than 25 watts?
   A. At least 30 dB below mean power of the fundamental
   B. At least 40 dB below mean power of the fundamental
   C. At least 50 dB below mean power of the fundamental
   D. At least 60 dB below mean power of the fundamental

4BA-1B.4 What can the FCC require the licensee to do if any
spurious emission from an amateur station causes harmful
interference to the reception of another radio station?
   A. Reduce the spurious emissions to 0 dB below the fundamental
   B. Observe quiet hours and pay a fine
   C. Forfeit the station license and pay a fine
   D. Eliminate or reduce the interference

4BA-1C.1 What are the points of communication for an amateur
station?
   A. Other amateur stations only
   B. Other amateur stations and other stations authorized by the
FCC to communicate with amateurs
   C. Other amateur stations and stations in the Personal Radio
Service
   D. Other amateur stations and stations in the Aviation or
Private Land Mobile Radio Services

4BA-1C.2 With which stations may an amateur station communicate?
   A. Amateur, RACES, and FCC Monitoring stations
   B. Amateur stations and any other station authorized by the
FCC to communicate with amateur stations
   C. Amateur stations only
   D. Amateur stations and US Government stations

4BA-1C.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
communicate with a non-amateur station?
   A. Only during emergencies and when the Commission has
authorized the non-amateur station to communicate with amateur
stations
   B. Under no circumstances
   C. Only when the state governor has authorized that station to
communicate with amateurs
   D. Only during Public Service events in connection with REACT
groups

4BA-1D.1 With what rules must US citizens comply when operating
an amateur station aboard any craft or vessel that is registered
in the US while in international waters or airspace?
   A. The FCC rules contained in Part 15
   B. The FCC rules contained in Part 97
   C. The IARU rules governing international operation
   D. There are no rules governing Amateur Radio operation in
international waters

4BA-1E.1 An amateur station is installed on board a ship or
aircraft in a compartment separate from the main radio
installation. What other conditions must the amateur operator
comply with?
   A. The Amateur Radio operation must be approved by the master
of the ship or the captain of the aircraft
   B. There must be an approved antenna switch included, so the
amateur can use the ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting only
when the main radios are not in use
   C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is
completely independent of the ship or aircraft power
   D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft
endorsement on his or her amateur license

4BA-1E.2  What types of licenses or permits are required before
an amateur operator may transmit from a vessel registered in the
US?
   A. No amateur license is required outside of international
waters
   B. Any amateur operator/primary station license or reciprocal
permit for alien amateur licensee issued by the FCC
   C. Only amateurs holding General class or higher licenses may
transmit from a vessel registered in the US
   D. Only an Amateur Extra class licensee may operate aboard a
vessel registered in the US

4BA-2A.1 What is an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien amateur
licensee++++?
   A. An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license
issued by certain foreign governments to operate an amateur
station in the United States and its possessions
   B. An FCC permit to allow a United States licensed amateur to
operate his station in a foreign nation, except Canada
   C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle
traffic between the United States and the amateur's own nation,
subject to the FCC rules on traffic-handling and third-party
messages
   D. An FCC permit to a commercial telecommunications company
allowing that company to pay amateurs to handle traffic during
emergencies

4BA-2B.1 Who is eligible for an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien
amateur licensee++++?
   A. Anyone holding a valid amateur operator/primary station
license issued by a foreign government
   B. Anyone holding a valid amateur operator/primary station
license issued by a foreign government with which the United
States has a reciprocal operating agreement, providing that
person is not a United States citizen
   C. Anyone who holds a valid amateur operator/primary station
license issued by a foreign government with which the United
States has a reciprocal operating agreement
   D. Anyone other than a United States citizen who holds a valid
Amateur Radio or shortwave listeners license issued by a foreign
government

4BA-2B.2 Under what circumstances, if any, is a US citizen
holding a foreign Amateur Radio license eligible to obtain an FCC
++++Reciprocal Operating Permit++++?
   A. A US Citizen is not eligible to obtain a Reciprocal
Operating Permit for use in the United States
   B. Only if the applicant brings his or her equipment with them
from the foreign country
   C. Only if that person is unable to qualify for a United
States amateur license
   D. If the applicant does not hold an FCC license as of the
date of application, but had held a US amateur license other than
Novice class less than 10 years before the date of application

4BA-2C.1 What are the operator frequency privileges authorized by
an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee++++?
   A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent United
States amateur license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by
endorsement on the permit
   B. Those that the holder of the reciprocal permit for alien
amateur licensee would have if he were in his own country
   C. Only those frequencies permitted to United States amateurs
that the holder of the reciprocal permit for alien amateur
licensee would have in his own country, unless the FCC specifies
otherwise
   D. Only those frequencies approved by the International
Amateur Radio Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise

4BA-2D.1 How does an alien operator identify an amateur station
when operating under an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien amateur
licensee++++?
   A. By using only his or her own call
   B. By using his or her own call, followed by the city and
state in the United States or possessions closest to his or her
present location
   C. By using the letter(s) and number indicating the United
States call-letter district of his or her location at the time of
the contact, followed by a slant bar (or the word "stroke") and
his or her own call. The city and state nearest the operating
location must be specified once during each contact
   D. By using his or her own call sign, followed by the serial
number of the reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee and
the call-letter district number of his or her present location

4BA-3A.1 What is ++++RACES++++?
   A. An Amateur Radio network for providing emergency
communications during long-distance athletic contests
   B. The radio amateur civil emergency service
   C. The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services
   D. An Amateur Radio network providing emergency communications
for transoceanic boat or aircraft races

4BA-3B.1 What is the purpose of ++++RACES++++?
   A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies
   B. To provide emergency communications for transoceanic boat
or aircraft races
   C. To provide routine and emergency communications for long-
distance athletic events
   D. To provide routine and emergency communications for large-
scale international events, such as the Olympic games

4BA-3C.1 With what other organization must an amateur station be
registered before ++++RACES++++ registration is permitted?
   A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
   B. The US Department of Defense
   C. A civil defense organization
   D. The Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC Field Operations Bureau

4BA-3D.1 Who may be the control operator of a ++++RACES++++ station?
   A. Anyone who holds a valid FCC amateur operator's license
other than Novice
   B. Only an Amateur Extra class licensee
   C. Anyone who holds an FCC amateur operator/primary station
license other than Novice and is certified by a civil defense
organization
   D. Anyone who holds an FCC amateur operator/primary station
license and is certified by a civil defense organization

4BA-3E.1 What additional operator privileges are granted to an
Amateur Extra class operator registered with ++++RACES++++?
   A. None
   B. Permission to operate CW on 5167.5 kHz
   C. Permission to operate an unattended HF packet radio station
   D. Permission to operate on the 237-MHz civil defense band

4BA-3F.1 What frequencies are normally available for ++++RACES++++
operation?
   A. Only those frequencies authorized by the ARRL Section
Emergency Coordinator
   B. Only those frequencies listed in Section 97.8
   C. Only transmitting frequencies in the top 25 kHz of each
amateur band
   D. All frequencies available to the amateur service

4BA-3G.1 What type of emergency can cause a limitation on the
frequencies available for ++++RACES++++ operation?
   A. An emergency in which the President invokes the War
Emergency Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act
of 1934
   B. RACES operations must be confined to a single frequency
band if the emergency is contained within a single state
   C. RACES operations must be conducted on a VHF band if the
emergency is confined to an area 25 miles or less in radius
   D. The Red Cross may limit available frequencies if the
emergency involves no immediate danger of loss of life

4BA-3H.1 Which amateur stations may be operated in ++++RACES++++?
   A. Only Extra class amateur stations
   B. Any licensed amateur station except a station licensed to a
Novice
   C. Any licensed amateur station certified by the responsible
civil defense organization
   D. Any licensed amateur station other than a station licensed
to a Novice, providing the station is certified by the
responsible civil defense organization

4BA-3H.2 What are the points of communications for amateur
stations operated in ++++RACES++++ and certified by the responsible civil
defense organization as registered with that organization?
   A. RACES stations and certain other stations authorized by the
responsible civil defense official
   B. Any RACES stations and any FCC licensed amateur stations
except stations licensed to Novices
   C. Any FCC licensed amateur station or a station in the
Disaster Communications Service
   D. Any FCC licensed amateur station except stations licensed
to Novices

4BA-3I.1 What are permissible communications in ++++RACES++++?
   A. Any communications concerning local traffic nets
   B. Any communications concerning the Amateur Radio Emergency
Service
   C. Any communications concerning national defense and security
or immediate safety of people and property that are authorized by
the area civil defense organization
   D. Any communications concerning national defense or security
or immediate safety of people or property but only when a state
of emergency has been declared by the President, the governor, or
other authorized official, and then only so long as the state of
emergency endures

4BA-4A.1 What are the purposes of the Amateur Satellite Service?
   A. It is a radionavigation service using stations on earth
satellites for the same purposes as those of the amateur service
   B. It is a radio communication service using stations on earth
satellites for weather information
   C. It is a radio communication service using stations on earth
satellites for the same purpose as those of the amateur service
   D. It is a radiolocation service using stations on earth
satellites for amateur operators engaged in satellite radar
experimentation

4BA-4B.1 What are some frequencies available for ++++space operation++++?
   A. 7.0-7.1, 14.00-14.25, 21.00-21.45, 24.890-24.990, 28.00-
29.70, 144-146, 435-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz
   B. 7.0-7.3, 21.00-21.45, 28.00-29.70, 144-146, 432-438 and
24,000-24,050 MHz
   C. All frequencies available to the amateur service, providing
license-class, power and emission-type restrictions are observed
   D. Only frequencies available to Amateur Extra class licensees

4BA-4C-1.1 What is the term used to describe the operation of an
amateur station which transmits communications used to initiate,
modify or terminate the functions of a space station?
   A. Space operation
   B. Telecommand operation
   C. Earth operation
   D. Control operation

4BA-4C-2.1 Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand
stations?
   A. Any Amateur Radio licensee except Novice
   B. Amateur Extra class licensees only
   C. Telecommand operation is not permitted in the amateur
satellite service
   D. Any amateur station designated by the space station
licensee

4BA-4D-1.1 What term describes the space-to-earth transmissions
used to communicate the results of measurements made by a space
station?
   A. Data transmission
   B. Frame check sequence
   C. Telemetry
   D. Telecommand operation

4BA-4E-1.1 What is the term used to describe the operation of an
amateur station that is more than 50 km above the Earth's
surface?
   A. EME operation
   B. Exospheric operation
   C. Downlink operation
   D. Space station operation

4BA-4E-2.1 Which amateur stations are eligible for ++++space
operation++++?
   A. Any licensee except Novice
   B. General, Advanced and Extra class licensees only
   C. Advanced and Extra class licensees only
   D. Amateur Extra class licensees only

4BA-4E-4.1 When must the licensee of a station scheduled for
space operation give the FCC written pre-space notification?
   A. Both 3 months and 72 hours prior to initiating space
station transmissions
   B. Both 6 months and 3 months prior to initiating space
station transmissions
   C. Both 12 months and 3 months prior to initiating space
station transmissions
   D. Both 27 months and 5 months prior to initiating space
station transmissions

4BA-4E-4.2 When must the licensee of a station in ++++space operation++++
give the FCC written in-space notification?
   A. No later than 24 hours following initiation of space
operation
   B. No later than 72 hours following initiation of space
operation
   C. No later than 7 days following initiation of space
operation
   D. No later than 30 days following initiation of space
operation

4BA-4E-4.3 When must the licensee of a station in ++++space operation++++
give the FCC written post-space notification?
   A. No later than 48 hours after termination is complete, under
normal circumstances
   B. No later than 72 hours after termination is complete, under
normal circumstances
   C. No later than 7 days after termination is complete, under
normal circumstances
   D. No later than 3 months after termination is complete, under
normal circumstances

4BA-4F-1.1 What term describes an amateur station located on, or
within 50 km of, the earth's surface intended for communications
with space stations?
   A. Earth station
   B. Telecommand station
   C. Repeater station
   D. Auxiliary station

4BA-4F-2.1 Which amateur licensees are eligible to operate an
++++earth station++++?
   A. Any amateur licensee
   B. Amateur Extra class licensees only
   C. Any station except those licensed to Novices
   D. A special license issued by the FCC is required before any
amateur licensee may operate an earth station

4BA-5A.1 What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator?
   A. An organization that volunteers to administer amateur
license examinations to candidates for the Novice license
   B. An organization that volunteers to administer amateur
license examinations for any class of license other than Novice
   C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the
FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and
administering examinations for Technician, General, Advanced and
Amateur Extra class operator licenses
   D. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the
FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and
administering examinations for Novice class amateur operator
licenses

4BA-5B.1 What are some of the requirements to be a ++++VEC++++?
   A. Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur
equipment or in the coordination of amateur activities throughout
at least one call letter district, and agree to abide by FCC
Rules concerning administration of amateur license examinations
   B. Be an organization that exists for the purpose of
furthering the amateur service; be at least regional in scope;
agree to coordinate examinations for Technician, General,
Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator licenses
   C. Be an organization that exists for the purpose of
furthering the amateur service; be, at the most, county-wide in
scope; and agree to coordinate examinations for all classes of
amateur operator licenses
   D. Be engaged in a business related to Amateur Radio and agree
to administer amateur license examinations in accordance with FCC
Rules throughout at least one call letter district

4BA-5C.1 What are the functions of a ++++VEC++++?
   A. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates'
application forms, answer sheets and test results and forward the
applications to the FCC; maintain pools of questions for Amateur
Radio examinations; and perform other clerical tasks in
accordance with FCC Rules
   B. Assemble, print and sell FCC-approved examination forms;
accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' answer sheets
and forward them to the FCC; screen applications for completeness
and authenticity; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance
with FCC Rules
   C. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; certify that examiners'
equipment is type-accepted by the FCC; assemble, print and
distribute FCC-approved examination forms; and perform other
clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules
   D. Maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations;
administer code and theory examinations; score and forward the
test papers to the FCC so that the appropriate license may be
issued to each successful candidate

4BA-5C.2 Where are the questions listed that must be used in
written examinations?
   A. In the appropriate VEC question pool
   B. In PR Bulletin 1035C
   C. In PL 97-259
   D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

4BA-5C.3 How is an Element 3(A) examination prepared?
   A. By General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class Volunteer
Examiners or a qualified supplier selecting questions from the
appropriate VEC question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool

4BA-5C.4 How is an Element 3(B) examination prepared?
   A. By Advanced or Amateur Extra class Volunteer Examiners or a
qualified supplier selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool

4BA-5C.5 How is an Element 4(A) examination prepared?
   A. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner
Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool

4BA-5C.6 How is an Element 4(B) examination prepared?
   A. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner
Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from
the appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool

4BA-5D.1 What organization coordinates the dates and times for
scheduling Amateur Radio examinations?
   A. The FCC
   B. A VEC
   C. The IARU
   D. Local radio clubs

4BA-5E.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to
accredit a person as a VE on the basis of membership in an
Amateur Radio organization?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only when the prospective VE is an ARRL member
   C. Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the local
Amateur Radio club
   D. Only when the club is at least regional in scope

4BA-5E.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to
accredit a person as a VE on the basis of lack of membership in
an Amateur Radio organization?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only when the prospective VE is not an ARRL member
   C. Only when the club is at least regional in scope
   D. Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the local
Amateur Radio club giving the examinations

4BA-5F.1 Under what circumstance, if any, may an organization
engaged in the manufacture of equipment used in connection with
Amateur Radio transmissions be a VEC?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. If the organization's amateur-related sales are very small
   C. If the organization is manufacturing very specialized
amateur equipment
   D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been
taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest

4BA-5F.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who is an
employee of a company that is engaged in the distribution of
equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions be
a VE?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only if the employee does not normally communicate with
that part of the company engaged in the manufacture or
distribution of amateur equipment
   C. Only if the employee has no financial interest in the
company
   D. Only if the employee is an Extra class licensee

4BA-5F.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who owns
a significant interest in a company that is engaged in the
preparation of publications used in preparation for obtaining an
amateur operator license be a VE?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are very
small
   C. Only if the organization is publishing very specialized
material
   D. Only if the person is an Extra class licensee

4BA-5F.4 Under what circumstances, if any, may an organization
engaged in the distribution of publications used in preparation
for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VEC?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only if the organization's amateur publishing business is
very small
   C. Only if the organization is selling the publication at cost
to examinees
   D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been
taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest

4BA-5G.1 Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket
expenses incurred in preparing, processing or administering
examinations?
   A. Examinees
   B. FCC
   C. ARRL
   D. FCC and Examiners

4BA-5G.2 What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts
reimbursement and fails to provide the annual expense
certification?
   A. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year
   B. Disaccredit the VE
   C. Suspend the VE's accreditation and report the information
to the FCC
   D. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months

4BA-5G.3 What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE
who accepts reimbursement?
   A. All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from the
examinees
   B. All out-of-pocket expenses only
   C. Reimbursements from examiners only
   D. FCC reimbursements only

4BA-5G.4 For what period of time must a VE maintain records of
out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements for each examination
session for which reimbursement is accepted?
   A. 1 year
   B. 2 years
   C. 3 years
   D. 4 years

4BA-5G.5 By what date each year must a VE forward to the VEC a
certification concerning expenses for which reimbursement was
accepted?
   A. December 15 following the year for which the reimbursement
was accepted
   B. January 15 following the year for which the reimbursement
was accepted
   C. April 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was
accepted
   D. October 15 following the year for which the reimbursement
was accepted

4BA-5G.6 For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for
out-of-pocket expenses?
   A. Preparing, processing or administering examinations above
the Novice class
   B. Preparing, processing or administering examinations
including the Novice class
   C. A VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses
   D. Only for preparation of examination elements

4BA-6A.1 What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
   A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to
administer examinations to applicants for amateur
operator/primary station licenses
   B. An amateur operator who is accredited by a VEC to
administer examinations to applicants for amateur
operator/primary station licenses
   C. An amateur operator who administers examinations to
applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses for a
fee
   D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to
administer amateur license examinations

4BA-6A.2 What is an accredited ++++VE++++?
   A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to
administer examinations to applicants for amateur
operator/primary station licenses
   B. An amateur operator who is accredited by a VEC to
administer examinations to applicants for amateur
operator/primary station licenses
   C. An amateur operator who administers examinations to
applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses for a
fee
   D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to give
amateur license examinations

4BA-6B.1 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for a Technician class operator
license?
   A. The Volunteer Examiner must be a Novice class licensee
accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   B. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Advanced or Extra class
licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   C. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Extra class licensee
accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   D. The Volunteer Examiner must be a General class licensee
accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator

4BA-6B.2 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for a General class operator
license?
   A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   B. The examiner must hold an Extra class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   D. The examiner must hold an Extra class license to administer
the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may
administer the CW test element

4BA-6B.3 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for an Advanced class operator
license?
   A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   B. The examiner must hold an Extra class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   D. The examiner must hold an Extra class license to administer
the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may
administer the CW test element

4BA-6B.4 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for an Amateur Extra class operator
license?
   A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   B. The examiner must hold an Extra class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be
accredited by a VEC
   D. The examiner must hold an Extra class license to administer
the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may
administer the CW test element

4BA-6B.5 When is ++++VE++++ accreditation necessary?
   A. Always in order to administer a Technician or higher class
license examination
   B. Always in order to administer a Novice or higher class
license examination
   C. Sometimes in order to administer an Advanced or higher
class license examination
   D. VE accreditation is not necessary in order to administer a
General or higher class license examination

4BA-6C.1 What is ++++VE++++ accreditation?
   A. The process by which all Advanced and Extra class licensees
are automatically given permission to conduct Amateur Radio
examinations
   B. The process by which the FCC tests volunteers who wish to
coordinate amateur operator/primary station license examinations
   C. The process by which the prospective VE requests his or her
requirements for accreditation
   D. The process by which each VEC makes sure its VEs meet FCC
requirements to serve as Volunteer Examiners

4BA-6C.2 What are the requirements for ++++VE++++ accreditation?
   A. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 18
years old; not have any conflict of interest; and never had his
or her amateur license suspended or revoked
   B. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 16
years old; and not have any conflict of interest
   C. Hold an Extra class license or higher; be at least 18 years
old; and be a member of ARRL
   D. There are no requirements for accreditation, other than
holding a General or higher class license

4BA-6C.3 The services of which persons seeking to be VEs will not
be accepted by the FCC?
   A. Persons with Advanced class licenses
   B. Persons being between 18 and 21 years of age
   C. Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended
or revoked
   D. Persons who are employees of the Federal Government

4BA-6D.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person be
compensated for services as a VE?
   A. When the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session
   B. When the VE loses a day's pay to administer the exam
   C. When the VE spends many hours preparing for the test
session
   D. Under no circumstances

4BA-6D.2 How much money, if any, may a person accept for services
as a VE?
   A. None
   B. Up to a half day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours
at the test session
   C. Up to a full day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours
preparing for the test session
   D. Up to 50 if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test
session

4BA-7A-1.1 What is an ++++Element 1(A)++++ examination intended to prove?
   A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5
WPM
   B. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at
13 WPM
   C. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and
regulations
   D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at
20 WPM

4BA-7A-1.2 What is an ++++Element 1(B)++++ examination intended to prove?
   A. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and
regulations
   B. The applicant's knowledge of General class theory and
regulations
   C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5
WPM
   D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at
13 WPM

4BA-7A-1.3 What is an ++++Element 1(C)++++ examination intended to prove?
   A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at
20 WPM
   B. The applicant's knowledge of Amateur Extra class theory and
regulations
   C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at
13 WPM
   D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5
WPM

4BA-7A-1.4 What is ++++Examination Element 2++++?
   A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Novice operator license
   D. The written examination for the Technician operator license

4BA-7A-1.5 What is ++++Examination Element 3(A) ++++?
   A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Technician class operator
license
   D. The written examination for the General class operator
license

4BA-7A-1.6 What is ++++Examination Element 3(B)++++?
   A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Technician class operator
license
   D. The written examination for the General class operator
license

4BA-7A-1.7 What is ++++Examination Element 4(A)++++?
   A. The written examination for the Technician class operator
license
   B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator
license
   D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra class
operator license

4BA-7A-1.8 What is ++++Examination Element 4(B)++++?
   A. The written examination for the Technician class operator
license
   B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator
license
   D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra class
operator license

4BA-7A-2.1 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 1(B)++++?
   A. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or a qualified supplier
   B. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   C. The FCC
   D. The Field Operations Bureau

4BA-7A-2.2 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 1(C)++++?
   A. The FCC
   B. The Field Operations Bureau
   C. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   D. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or a qualified supplier

4BA-7A-2.3 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 3(A)++++?
   A. General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class licensees serving
as Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators

4BA-7A-2.4 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 3(B)++++?
   A. Advanced or Amateur Extra class licensees serving as
Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators

4BA-7A-2.5 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 4(A)++++?
   A. Advanced or Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or a qualified supplier

4BA-7A-2.6 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 4(B)++++?
   A. Advanced or Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or a qualified supplier

4BA-7B.1 What examination elements are required for an Amateur
Extra class operator license?
   A. 1(C) and 4(B)
   B. 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
   C. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
   D. 1(C), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)

4BA-7B.2 What examination elements are required for an Advanced
class operator license?
   A. 1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
   B. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
   C. 1(B) and 4(A)
   D. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)

4BA-7B.3 What examination elements are required for a General
class operator license?
   A. 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
   B. 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
   C. 1(A), 3(A) and 3(B)
   D. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)

4BA-7B.4 (This question has been withdrawn.)
What examination elements are required for a Technician
class operator license?
   A. 1(A) and 2B
   B. 1(A) and 3(A)
   C. 1(A), 2 and 3(A)
   D. 2 and 3(A)

4BA-7C.1 What examination credit must be given to an applicant
who holds a valid Novice class operator license?
   A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A) and 2
   B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B) and 3(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B) and 2
   D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A) and 3(A)

4BA-7C.2 (This question has been withdrawn.)
What examination credit must be given to an applicant
who holds a valid Technician class operator license ++++issued after
March 20, 1987++++?
   A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A) and 2
   B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2 and
3(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2 and
3(A)
   D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 3(A) and
3(B)

4BA-7C.3 What examination credit must be given to an applicant
who holds a valid Technician class operator license ++++issued before
March 21, 1987++++?
   A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2 and
3(B)
   B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2, 3(A)
and 3(B)
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A)
and 4(A)
   D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 3(A) and
3(B)

4BA-7C.4 What examination credit must be given to an applicant
who holds a valid General class operator license?
   A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A),
3(B) and 4(A)
   B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 3(A),
3(B) and 4(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2, 3(A),
3(B) and 4(B)
   D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A)
and 3(B)

4BA-7C.5 What examination credit must be given to an applicant
who holds a valid Advanced class operator license?
   A. Credit for successful completion of element 4(A)
   B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B) and 4(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A),
3(B) and 4(A)
   D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(C), 3(A),
3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)

4BA-7C.6 What examination credit, if any, may be given to an
applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by
another country?
   A. Credit for successful completion of any elements that may
be identical to those required for U.S. licensees
   B. No credit
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) and
1(C)
   D. Credit for successful completion of elements 2, 3(A), 3(B),
4(A) and 4(B)

4BA-7C.7 What examination credit, if any, may be given to an
applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by
any other United States government agency than the FCC?
   A. No credit
   B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) or
1(C)
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 4(A) and 4(B)
   D. Credit for successful completion of element 1(C)

4BA-7C.8 What examination credit must be given to an applicant
who holds an unexpired (or expired less than five years) FCC-
issued commercial radiotelegraph operator license or permit?
   A. No credit
   B. Credit for successful completion of element 1(B) only
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) or
1(C)
   D. Credit for successful completion of element 1(A) only

4BA-7C.9 What examination credit must be given to the holder of a
valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination?
   A. Credit for previously completed written examination
elements only
   B. Credit for the code speed associated with the previously
completed telegraphy examination elements only
   C. Credit for previously completed written and telegraphy
examination elements only
   D. Credit for previously completed commercial examination
elements only

4BA-7D.1 Who determines where and when examinations for amateur
operator licenses are to be administered?
   A. The FCC
   B. The Section Manager
   C. The applicants
   D. The administering Volunteer Examiner Team

4BA-7D.2 Where must the examiners be and what must they be doing
during an examination?
   A. The examiners must be present and observing the
candidate(s) throughout the entire examination
   B. The examiners must be absent to allow the candidate(s) to
complete the entire examination in accordance with the
traditional honor system
   C. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s)
throughout the administration of telegraphy examination elements
only
   D. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s)
throughout the administration of written examination elements
only

4BA-7D.3 Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary
supervision during an examination?
   A. The VEC
   B. The FCC
   C. The administering Volunteer Examiners
   D. The candidates and the administering Volunteer Examiners

4BA-7D.4 What should an examiner do when a candidate fails to
comply with the examiner's instructions?
   A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply with
the examiner's instructions will result in termination of the
examination
   B. Immediately terminate the examination
   C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but refuse
to issue a certificate of successful completion of examination
for any elements passed by fraudulent means
   D. Immediately terminate the examination and report the
violation to federal law enforcement officials

4BA-7D.5 What will the administering VEs require an examinee to
do upon completion of an examination element?
   A. Complete a brief written evaluation of the session
   B. Return all test papers to the examiners
   C. Return all test papers to the VEC
   D. Pay the registration fee

4BA-7E.1 When must the test papers be graded?
   A. Within 5 days of completion of an examination element
   B. Within 30 days of completion of an examination element
   C. Immediately upon completion of an examination element
   D. Within ten days of completion of an examination element

4BA-7E.2 Who must grade the test papers?
   A. The ARRL
   B. The administering Volunteer Examiners
   C. The Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   D. The FCC

4BA-7E.3 How do the examiners inform a candidate who does not
score a passing grade?
   A. Return the application to the examinee and inform the
examinee of the grade
   B. Give the percentage of the questions answered incorrectly
and return the application to the candidate
   C. Tell the candidate that he or she failed and return the
application to the candidate
   D. Show how the incorrect answers should have been answered
and give a copy of the corrected answer sheet to the candidate

4BA-7E.4 What must the examiners do when the candidate scores a
passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade?
   A. Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and
return the application to the candidate
   B. Tell the candidate that he or she passed
   C. Issue the candidate an operator license
   D. Certify on the examinee's application form that the
applicant is qualified for the license and report the basis for
the qualification

4BA-7E.5 Within what time limit after administering an exam must
the examiners submit the applications and test papers from
successful candidates to the VEC?
   A. Within 10 days
   B. Within 15 days
   C. Within 30 days
   D. Within 90 days

4BA-7E.6 To whom do the examiners submit successful candidates'
applications and test papers?
   A. To the candidate
   B. To the coordinating VEC
   C. To the local radio club
   D. To the regional Section Manager

4BA-7F.1 When an applicant passes an examination to upgrade his
or her operator license, under what authority may he or she be
the control operator of an amateur station with the privileges of
the higher operator class?
   A. That of the Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination issued by the VE Team that administered the
examination
   B. That of the ARRL
   C. Applicants already licensed in the amateur service may not
use their newly earned privileges until they receive their
permanent amateur station and operator licenses
   D. Applicants may only use their newly earned privileges
during emergencies pending issuance of their permanent amateur
station and operator licenses

4BA-7F.2 What is a ++++Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination++++?
   A. A document printed by the FCC
   B. A document required for already licensed applicants
operating with privileges of an amateur operator class higher
than that of their permanent amateur operator licenses
   C. A document a candidate may use for an indefinite period of
time to receive credit for successful completion of any written
element
   D. A permanent amateur station and operator license
certificate issued to a newly-upgraded licensee by the FCC within
90 days of the completion of the examination

4BA-7F.3 How long may a successful candidate operate a station
under authority of a Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination with the rights and privileges of the higher operator
class for which the applicant has passed the appropriate
examinations?
   A. 30 days or until issuance of a permanent operator and
station license, whichever comes first
   B. 3 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and
station license, whichever comes first
   C. 6 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and
station license, whichever comes first
   D. 365 days or until issuance of the permanent operator and
station license, whichever comes first

4BA-7F.4 How must the station call sign be amended when operating
under the temporary authority of a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination?
   A. The applicant must use an identifier code as a prefix to
his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "interim AE
KA1MJP"
   B. The applicant must use an identifier code as a suffix to
his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "KA1MJP
temporary AE"
   C. By adding after the call sign, when using voice, the phrase
"operating temporary Technician, General, Advanced or Extra"
   D. By adding to the call sign, when using CW, the slant bar
followed by the letters T, G, A or E

4BB-1A.1 What is an ++++ascending pass++++ for an amateur satellite?
   A. A pass from west to east
   B. A pass from east to west
   C. A pass from south to north
   D. A pass from north to south

4BB-1A.2 What is a ++++descending pass++++ for an amateur satellite?
   A. A pass from north to south
   B. A pass from west to east
   C. A pass from east to west
   D. A pass from south to north

4BB-1A.3 What is the ++++period++++ of an amateur satellite?
   A. An orbital arc that extends from 60 degrees west longitude
to 145 degrees west longitude
   B. The point on an orbit where satellite height is minimum
   C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one
orbit
   D. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to
apogee

4BB-1B.1 What is ++++Mode A++++ in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that
retransmits on 2 meters
   B. The lowest frequency used in Phase 3 transponders
   C. The highest frequency used in Phase 3 translators
   D. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that
retransmits on 10 meters

4BB-1B.2 What is ++++Mode B++++ in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that
retransmits on 2 meters
   B. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 2 meters
   C. The beacon output
   D. A codestore device used to record messages

4BB-1B.3 What is ++++Mode J++++ in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 2 meters
   B. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that
retransmits on 70 centimeters
   C. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that
retransmits on 10 meters
   D. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 10 meters

4BB-1B.4 What is ++++Mode L++++ in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 10 meters
   B. Operation through a 23-centimeter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 70 centimeters
   C. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 23 centimeters
   D. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that
retransmits on 70 centimeters

4BB-1C.1 What is a ++++linear transponder++++?
   A. A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals
   B. A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode
in a certain passband
   C. An amplifier for SSB transmissions
   D. A device used to change FM to SSB

4BB-1C.2 What are the two basic types of ++++linear transponders++++ used
in amateur satellites?
   A. Inverting and noninverting
   B. Geostationary and elliptical
   C. Phase 2 and Phase 3
   D. Amplitude modulated and frequency modulated

4BB-1D.1 Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by
several kHz during a low-earth-orbit amateur satellite pass?
   A. The distance between the satellite and ground station is
changing, causing the Kepler effect
   B. The distance between the satellite and ground station is
changing, causing the Bernoulli effect
   C. The distance between the satellite and ground station is
changing, causing the Boyles' law effect
   D. The distance between the satellite and ground station is
changing, causing the Doppler effect

4BB-1D.2 Why does the received signal from a Phase III amateur
satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect?
   A. Because the satellite is rotating
   B. Because of ionospheric absorption
   C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
   D. Because of the Doppler effect

4BB-1D.3 What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects
of ++++spin modulation++++ and ++++Faraday rotation++++?
   A. A nonpolarized antenna
   B. A circularly polarized antenna
   C. An isotropic antenna
   D. A log-periodic dipole array

4BB-2A.1 How often is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan
television system?
   A. 30 times per second
   B. 60 times per second
   C. 90 times per second
   D. 120 times per second

4BB-2A.2 How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television
frame?
   A. 30
   B. 60
   C. 525
   D. 1050

4BB-2A.3 How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a
fast-scan television system?
   A. By scanning the field from top to bottom
   B. By scanning the field from bottom to top
   C. By scanning even numbered lines in one field and odd
numbered ones in the next
   D. By scanning from left to right in one field and right to
left in the next

4BB-2A.4 What is ++++blanking++++ in a video signal?
   A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync-pulses
   B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from
right to left and from bottom to top
   C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a
transmission
   D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern

4BB-2A.5 What is the standard video voltage level between the
sync tip and the whitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator
inputs?
   A. 1 volt peak-to-peak
   B. 120 IEEE units
   C. 12 volts DC
   D. 5 volts RMS

4BB-2A.6 What is the bandwidth of a fast-scan television
transmission?
   A. 3 kHz
   B. 10 kHz
   C. 25 kHz
   D. 6 MHz

4BB-2A.7 What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for
black?
   A. 0%
   B. 12.5%
   C. 70%
   D. 100%

4BB-2A.8 What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for
white?
   A. 0%
   B. 12.5%
   C. 70%
   D. 100%

4BB-2A.9 What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for
blanking?
   A. 0%
   B. 12.5%
   C. 75%
   D. 100%

4BC-1.1 What is the maximum separation between two stations
communicating by ++++moonbounce++++?
   A. 500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
   B. 2,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee
   C. 5,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
   D. Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar
window

4BC-1.2 What characterizes ++++libration fading++++ of an EME signal?
   A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
   B. A fluttery, rapid irregular fading
   C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
   D. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than
the transmitted signal

4BC-1.3 What are the best days to schedule EME contacts?
   A. When the moon is at perigee
   B. When the moon is full
   C. When the moon is at apogee
   D. When the weather at both stations is clear

4BC-1.4 What type of receiving system is required for EME
communications?
   A. Equipment capable of reception on 14 MHz
   B. Equipment with very low dynamic range
   C. Equipment with very low gain
   D. Equipment with very low noise figures

4BC-1.5 What type of transmitting system is required for EME
communications?
   A. A transmitting system capable of operation on the 21 MHz
band
   B. A transmitting system capable of producing a very high EIRP
   C. A transmitting system using an unmodulated carrier
   D. A transmitting system with a high second harmonic output

4BC-2.1 When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a
cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of
the ionosphere?
   A. The F1 layer
   B. The E layer
   C. The F2 layer
   D. The D layer

4BC-2.2 Which range of frequencies is well suited for ++++meteor-
scatter++++ communications?
   A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
   B. 10 - 14 MHz
   C. 28 - 148 MHz
   D. 220 - 450 MHz

4BC-3.1 What is ++++transequatorial propagation++++?
   A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same
distance north and south of the magnetic equator
   B. Propagation between two points on the magnetic equator
   C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along
the magnetic equator
   D. Propagation between any two stations at the same latitude

4BC-3.2 What is the maximum range for signals using
++++transequatorial propagation++++?
   A. About 1,000 miles
   B. About 2,500 miles
   C. About 5,000 miles
   D. About 7,500 miles

4BC-3.3 What is the best time of day for ++++transequatorial
propagation++++?
   A. Morning
   B. Noon
   C. Afternoon or early evening
   D. Transequatorial propagation only works at night

4BC-4.1 If a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180
degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals,
what type of propagation is probably occurring?
   A. Transequatorial propagation
   B. Sporadic-E propagation
   C. Long-path propagation
   D. Auroral propagation

4BC-5.1 What is the name for a type of propagation in which radio
signals travel along the ++++terminator++++, which separates daylight
from darkness?
   A. Transequatorial propagation
   B. Sporadic-E propagation
   C. Long-path propagation
   D. Gray-line propagation

4BD-1A.1 How does a ++++spectrum analyzer++++ differ from a conventional
time-domain oscilloscope?
   A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals
while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric
reflection
   B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in
the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to
display electrical signals in the time domain
   C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in
the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display
electrical signals in the frequency domain
   D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies
and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio
frequencies

4BD-1A.2 What does the horizontal axis of a ++++spectrum analyzer++++
display?
   A. Amplitude
   B. Voltage
   C. Resonance
   D. Frequency

4BD-1A.3 What does the vertical axis of a ++++spectrum analyzer++++
display?
   A. Amplitude
   B. Duration
   C. Frequency
   D. Time

4BD-1B.1 What test instrument can be used to display spurious
signals in the output of a radio transmitter?
   A. A spectrum analyzer
   B. A wattmeter
   C. A logic analyzer
   D. A time-domain reflectometer

4BD-1B.2 What test instrument is used to display intermodulation
distortion products from an SSB transmitter?
   A. A wattmeter
   B. A spectrum analyzer
   C. A logic analyzer
   D. A time-domain reflectometer

4BD-2A.1 What advantage does a ++++logic probe++++ have over a voltmeter
for monitoring logic states in a circuit?
   A. A logic probe has fewer leads to connect to a circuit than
a voltmeter
   B. A logic probe can be used to test analog and digital
circuits
   C. A logic probe can be powered by commercial AC lines
   D. A logic probe is smaller and shows a simplified readout

4BD-2A.2 What piece of test equipment can be used to directly
indicate high and low logic states?
   A. A galvanometer
   B. An electroscope
   C. A logic probe
   D. A Wheatstone bridge

4BD-2A.3 What is a logic probe used to indicate?
   A. A short-circuit fault in a digital-logic circuit
   B. An open-circuit failure in a digital-logic circuit
   C. A high-impedance ground loop
   D. High and low logic states in a digital-logic circuit

4BD-2B.1 What piece of test equipment besides an oscilloscope can
be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital-logic circuit?
   A. A logic probe
   B. A galvanometer
   C. An electroscope
   D. A Wheatstone bridge

4BD-3A.1 What is one of the most significant problems you might
encounter when you try to receive signals with a mobile station?
   A. Ignition noise
   B. Doppler shift
   C. Radar interference
   D. Mechanical vibrations

4BD-3A.2 What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical
noise in a mobile station?
   A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
   B. Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other
   C. Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic
surfaces
   D. Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring

4BD-3A.3 How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition
noise?
   A. Install them in the resistive high voltage cable every 2
years
   B. Install them between the starter solenoid and the starter
motor
   C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads
   D. Install them in the antenna lead to the radio

4BD-3A.4 How can ensuring good electrical contact between
connecting metal surfaces in a vehicle reduce spark plug noise?
   A. It reduces the spark gap distance, causing a lower frequency
spark
   B. It helps radiate the spark plug noise away from the vehicle
   C. It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body
   D. It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the
vehicle

4BD-3B.1 How can ++++alternator whine++++ be minimized?
   A. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the
longest possible path
   B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the
shortest possible path
   C. By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's
DC power lead to the vehicle's electrical system
   D. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power
lead

4BD-3B.2 How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an
automobile alternator be suppressed?
   A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power
lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
   B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the
longest possible path and by installing a blocking capacitor in
series with the positive lead
   C. By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's
power lead to the vehicle's electrical system and by installing a
low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
   D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the
battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator
leads

4BD-3C.1 What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
   A. Sunspots
   B. Thunderstorms
   C. Airplanes
   D. Meteor showers

4BD-3D.1 How can you determine if a line-noise interference
problem is being generated within your home?
   A. Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain
reflectometer
   B. Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope
   C. Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-
operated radio
   D. Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer

4BD-4.1 What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for
direction finding?
   A. It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop
   B. It is non-rotatable
   C. It receives equally well in all directions
   D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands

4BD-4.2 What directional pattern is desirable for a direction-
finding antenna?
   A. A non-cardioid pattern
   B. Good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
   C. Good top-to-bottom and front-to-side ratios
   D. Shallow nulls

4BD-4.3 What is the ++++triangulation method++++ of direction finding?
   A. Using the geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves
emanating from the same source to locate the signal source
   B. A fixed receiving station uses three beam headings to plot
the signal source on a map
   C. Beam headings from several receiving locations are used to
plot the signal source on a map
   D. The use of three vertical antennas to indicate the location
of the signal source

4BD-4.4 Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for
direction finding?
   A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
   B. It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
   C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna
pattern nulls
   D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals

4BD-4.5 What is a ++++sense antenna++++?
   A. A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a
cardioid reception pattern
   B. A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a
cardioid reception pattern
   C. A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce an
omnidirectional reception pattern
   D. A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce
a cardioid reception pattern

4BD-4.6 What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave
reception in radio direction finding?
   A. A log-periodic dipole array
   B. An isotropic antenna
   C. A circularly polarized antenna
   D. An Adcock antenna

4BD-4.7 What is a ++++loop antenna++++?
   A. A circularly polarized antenna
   B. A coil of wire used as an antenna in FM broadcast receivers
   C. A wire loop used in radio direction finding
   D. An antenna coupled to the feed line through an inductive
loop of wire

4BD-4.8 How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be
increased?
   A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
   B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop while
reducing the area of the loop structure
   C. By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop, or
the area of the loop structure
   D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop,
or the area of the loop structure

4BD-4.9 Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern
desirable for a direction-finding system?
   A. The broad side responses of the cardioid pattern can be
aimed at the desired station
   B. The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the
direction of the desired station
   C. The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can
pinpoint the direction of the desired station
   D. The high radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful
for short-distance direction finding

4BD-4.10 What type of terrain can cause errors in direction
finding?
   A. Homogeneous terrain
   B. Smooth grassy terrain
   C. Varied terrain
   D. Terrain with no buildings or mountains

4BE-1.1 What is the ++++photoconductive effect++++?
   A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
   B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
junction
   C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
   D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
junction

4BE-1.2 What happens to photoconductive material when light
shines on it?
   A. The conductivity of the material increases
   B. The conductivity of the material decreases
   C. The conductivity of the material stays the same
   D. The conductivity of the material becomes temperature
dependent

4BE-1.3 What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive
material when light shines on it?
   A. It increases
   B. It becomes temperature dependent
   C. It stays the same
   D. It decreases

4BE-1.4 What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor
junction when it is illuminated?
   A. It stays the same
   B. It becomes temperature dependent
   C. It increases
   D. It decreases

4BE-1.5 What is an ++++optocoupler++++?
   A. A resistor and a capacitor
   B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
   C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
   D. An LED and a phototransistor

4BE-1.6 What is an ++++optoisolator++++?
   A. An LED and a phototransistor
   B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when
exposed to light
   C. An LED and a capacitor
   D. An LED and a solar cell

4BE-1.7 What is an ++++optical shaft encoder++++?
   A. An array of optocouplers chopped by a stationary wheel
   B. An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is
controlled by a rotating wheel
   C. An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is
controlled by a stationary wheel
   D. An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is
controlled by a rotating wheel

4BE-1.8 What does the ++++photoconductive effect++++ in crystalline
solids produce a noticeable change in?
   A. The capacitance of the solid
   B. The inductance of the solid
   C. The specific gravity of the solid
   D. The resistance of the solid

4BE-2A.1 What is the meaning of the term ++++time constant++++ of an RC
circuit?
   A. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
36.8% of the supply voltage
   B. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
36.8% of the supply current
   C. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
63.2% of the supply current
   D. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
63.2% of the supply voltage

4BE-2A.2 What is the meaning of the term ++++time constant++++ of an RL
circuit?
   A. The time required for the current in the circuit to build
up to 36.8% of the maximum value
   B. The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build
up to 63.2% of the maximum value
   C. The time required for the current in the circuit to build
up to 63.2% of the maximum value
   D. The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build
up to 36.8% of the maximum value

4BE-2A.3 What is the term for the time required for the capacitor
in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?
   A. An exponential rate of one
   B. One time constant
   C. One exponential period
   D. A time factor of one

4BE-2A.4 What is the term for the time required for the current
in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?
   A. One time constant
   B. An exponential period of one
   C. A time factor of one
   D. One exponential rate

4BE-2A.5 What is the term for the time it takes for a charged
capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial
value of stored charge?
   A. One discharge period
   B. An exponential discharge rate of one
   C. A discharge factor of one
   D. One time constant

4BE-2A.6 What is meant by ++++back EMF++++?
   A. A current equal to the applied EMF
   B. An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the
applied EMF
   C. A current that opposes the applied EMF
   D. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF

4BE-2B.1 After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit
is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage?
   A. 36.8%
   B. 63.2%
   C. 86.5%
   D. 95%

4BE-2B.2 After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit
is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage?
   A. 86.5%
   B. 63.2%
   C. 36.8%
   D. 13.5%

4BE-2B.3 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
   A. 4700 seconds
   B. 470 seconds
   C. 47 seconds
   D. 0.47 seconds

4BE-2B.4 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-
microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 1-megohm resistor?
   A. 220 seconds
   B. 22 seconds
   C. 2.2 seconds
   D. 0.22 seconds

4BE-2B.5 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-
microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?
   A. 470 seconds
   B. 47 seconds
   C. 4.7 seconds
   D. 0.47 seconds

4BE-2B.6 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-
microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in
parallel?
   A. 470 seconds
   B. 47 seconds
   C. 4.7 seconds
   D. 0.47 seconds

4BE-2B.7 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-
microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series?
   A. 55 seconds
   B. 110 seconds
   C. 220 seconds
   D. 440 seconds

4BE-2B.8 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-
microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?
   A. 22 seconds
   B. 44 seconds
   C. 220 seconds
   D. 440 seconds

4BE-2B.9 What is the time constant of a circuit having one 100-
microfarad capacitor, one 220-microfarad capacitor, one 470-
kilohm resistor and one 1-megohm resistor all in series?
   A. 68.8 seconds
   B. 101.1 seconds
   C. 220.0 seconds
   D. 470.0 seconds

4BE-2B.10 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-
microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel?
   A. 0.47 seconds
   B. 47 seconds
   C. 220 seconds
   D. 470 seconds

4BE-2B.11 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
   A. 221 seconds
   B. 221000 seconds
   C. 470 seconds
   D. 470000 seconds

4BE-2B.12 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
   A. 103 seconds
   B. 220 seconds
   C. 470 seconds
   D. 470000 seconds

4BE-2B.13 How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC
to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 12.64 seconds
   B. 0.02 seconds
   C. 1 second
   D. 7.98 seconds

4BE-2B.14 How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC
to decrease to 2.71 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 0.04 seconds
   B. 0.02 seconds
   C. 7.36 seconds
   D. 12.64 seconds

4BE-2B.15 How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC
to decrease to 1 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 0.01 seconds
   B. 0.02 seconds
   C. 0.04 seconds
   D. 0.06 seconds

4BE-2B.16 How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC
to decrease to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 0.08 seconds
   B. 0.6 seconds
   C. 0.4 seconds
   D. 0.2 seconds

4BE-2B.17 How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC
to decrease to 0.13 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 0.06 seconds
   B. 0.08 seconds
   C. 0.1 seconds
   D. 1.2 seconds

4BE-2B.18 How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC
to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 80 seconds
   B. 294 seconds
   C. 368 seconds
   D. 450 seconds

4BE-2B.19 How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC
to decrease to 108 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 225 seconds
   B. 294 seconds
   C. 450 seconds
   D. 900 seconds

4BE-2B.20 How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC
to decrease to 39.9 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. 1350 seconds
   B. 900 seconds
   C. 450 seconds
   D. 225 seconds

4BE-2B.21 How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC
to decrease to 40.2 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. Approximately 225 seconds
   B. Approximately 450 seconds
   C. Approximately 900 seconds
   D. Approximately 1350 seconds

4BE-2B.22 How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC
to decrease to 14.8 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
   A. Approximately 900 seconds
   B. Approximately 1350 seconds
   C. Approximately 1804 seconds
   D. Approximately 2000 seconds

4BE-3.1 What is a ++++Smith Chart++++?
   A. A graph for calculating impedance along transmission lines
   B. A graph for calculating great circle bearings
   C. A graph for calculating antenna height
   D. A graph for calculating radiation patterns

4BE-3.2 What type of coordinate system is used in a ++++Smith Chart++++?
   A. Voltage and current circles
   B. Resistance and reactance circles
   C. Voltage and current lines
   D. Resistance and reactance lines

4BE-3.3 What type of calculations can be performed using a ++++Smith
Chart++++?
   A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
   B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
   C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
   D. Circuit gain calculations

4BE-3.4 What are the two families of circles that make up a ++++Smith
Chart++++?
   A. Resistance and voltage
   B. Reactance and voltage
   C. Resistance and reactance
   D. Voltage and impedance

4BE-3.5 What is the only straight line on a blank ++++Smith Chart++++?
   A. The reactance axis
   B. The resistance axis
   C. The voltage axis
   D. The current axis

4BE-3.6 What is the process of ++++normalizing++++ with regard to a Smith
Chart?
   A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance
axis
   B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance
axis
   C. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime
center
   D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

4BE-3.7 What are the curved lines on a ++++Smith Chart++++?
   A. Portions of current circles
   B. Portions of voltage circles
   C. Portions of resistance circles
   D. Portions of reactance circles

4BE-3.8 What is the third family of circles, which are added to a
++++Smith Chart++++ during the process of solving problems?
   A. Coaxial length circles
   B. Antenna length circles
   C. Standing wave ratio circles
   D. Radiation pattern circles

4BE-3.9 How are the ++++wavelength scales++++ on a Smith Chart
calibrated?
   A. In portions of transmission line electrical frequency
   B. In portions of transmission line electrical wavelength
   C. In portions of antenna electrical wavelength
   D. In portions of antenna electrical frequency

4BE-4.1 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-
microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 20 + ++++j++++19
   B. 20 - ++++j++++19
   C. 19 + ++++j++++20
   D. 19 - ++++j++++20

4BE-4.2 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-
microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 30 - ++++j++++3
   B. 30 + ++++j++++3
   C. 3 + ++++j++++30
   D. 3 - ++++j++++30

4BE-4.3 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-
microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 40 + ++++j++++31400
   B. 40 - ++++j++++31400
   C. 31400 + ++++j++++40
   D. 31400 - ++++j++++40

4BE-4.4 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-
picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500
kHz? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 2490 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++51.5++++_++++degrees++++__
   B. 4000 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++38.5++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 5112 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-38.5++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 2490 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-51.5++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-4.5 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.001-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500
kHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 400 - ++++j++++318
   B. 318 - ++++j++++400
   C. 400 + ++++j++++318
   D. 318 + ++++j++++400

4BE-5.1 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-
ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 121 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++35++++_++++degrees++++__
   B. 141 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++45++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 161 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++55++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 181 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++65++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-5.2 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-
ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-
ohm resistor all connected in series? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 100 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++90++++_++++degrees++++__
   B.  10 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++0++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 100 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++0++++_++++degrees++++__
   D.  10 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++100++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-5.3 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-
ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 240 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++36.9++++_++++degrees++++___
   B. 240 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-36.9++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 500 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++53.1++++_++++degrees++++___
   D. 500 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-53.1++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-5.4 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-
ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-
ohm resistor, all connected in series? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 500 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++37++++_++++degrees++++__
   B. 400 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++27++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 300 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++17++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 200 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++10++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-5.5 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-
ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 240 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++36.9++++_++++degrees++++___
   B. 240 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-36.9++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 500 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++53.1++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 500 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-53.1++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-6A.1 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-
millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 200 - ++++j++++188
   B. 200 + ++++j++++188
   C. 188 + ++++j++++200
   D. 188 - ++++j++++200

4BE-6A.2 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-
millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm resistor, at 10 kHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 628 + ++++j++++600
   B. 628 - ++++j++++600
   C. 600 + ++++j++++628
   D. 600 - ++++j++++628

4BE-6A.3 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.01-
microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50
kHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 150 - ++++j++++159
   B. 150 + ++++j++++159
   C. 159 + ++++j++++150
   D. 159 - ++++j++++150

4BE-6A.4 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 40 + ++++j++++32
   B. 40 - ++++j++++32
   C. 32 - ++++j++++40
   D. 32 + ++++j++++40

4BE-6A.5 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-
microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5
MHz?  (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 0.000034 + ++++j++++.032
   B. 0.032 + ++++j++++.000034
   C. 0.000034 - ++++j++++.032
   D. 0.032 - ++++j++++.000034

4BE-6B.1 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-
ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 121 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-25++++_++++degrees++++__
   B. 141 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-45++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 161 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-65++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 191 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-85++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-6B.2 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-
ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 31 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-15++++_++++degrees++++__
   B. 51 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-25++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 71 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-45++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 91 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-65++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-6B.3 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-
ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 400 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++27++++_++++degrees++++__
   B. 500 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++37++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 600 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++47++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 700 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++57++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-6B.4 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-
ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A.  71 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++45++++_++++degrees++++_
   B.  81 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++55++++_++++degrees++++__
   C.  91 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++65++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 100 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++75++++_++++degrees++++__

4BE-6B.5 What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-
ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
(Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 200 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-10++++_++++degrees++++__
   B. 300 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-17++++_++++degrees++++__
   C. 400 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-27++++_++++degrees++++__
   D. 500 ohms,  ++++/++++_++++-37++++_++++degrees++++__

4BF-1A.1 What is an ++++enhancement-mode++++ FET?
   A. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate
   B. An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate
voltage is zero
   C. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
   D. An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate
voltage

4BF-1B.1 What is a ++++depletion-mode++++ FET?
   A. An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a
current flows with zero gate voltage
   B. An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate
voltage is zero
   C. An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate
voltage
   D. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate

4BF-1C.1 What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BF-1C.2 What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel MOSFET [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BF-1C.3 What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate
MOSFET [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BF-1C.4 What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel dual-gate
MOSFET [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BF-1C.5 Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective
Zener diodes?
   A. The gate-protective Zener diode provides a voltage
reference to provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate
voltage
   B. The gate-protective Zener diode protects the substrate from
excessive voltages
   C. The gate-protective Zener diode keeps the gate voltage
within specifications to prevent the device from overheating
   D. The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate
insulation from being punctured by small static charges or
excessive voltages

4BF-1D.1 What do the initials ++++CMOS++++ stand for?
   A. Common mode oscillating system
   B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon
   C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
   D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate

4BF-1D.2 Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET
and CMOS devices?
   A. They are susceptible to damage from static charges
   B. They have fragile leads that may break off
   C. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are
susceptible to breakage
   D. They are light sensitive

4BF-1E.1 What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction
FET [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BF-1E.2 How does the input impedance of a ++++field-effect
transistor++++ compare with that of a bipolar transistor?
   A. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing
the supply voltage
   B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has
high input impedance
   C. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the
same
   D. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has
low input impedance

4BF-1E.3 What are the three terminals of a ++++field-effect
transistor++++?
   A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain
   B. Emitter, base, collector
   C. Emitter, base 1, base 2
   D. Gate, drain, source

4BF-1F.1 What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction
FET [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BF-1F.2 What are the two basic types of junction ++++field-effect
transistors++++?
   A. N-channel and P-channel
   B. High power and low power
   C. MOSFET and GaAsFET
   D. Silicon FET and germanium FET

4BF-2.1 What is an ++++operational amplifier++++?
   A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose
characteristics are determined by components external to the
amplifier unit
   B. A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose
characteristics are determined by components external to the
amplifier unit
   C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of
frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
   D. A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF
amplifier

4BF-2.2 What is the schematic symbol for an ++++operational
amplifier++++ [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BF-2.3 What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?
   A. Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite
gain, flat frequency response
   B. Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite
gain, flat frequency response
   C. Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain,
flat frequency response
   D. Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance,
infinite gain, flat frequency response

4BF-2.4 What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?
   A. The external feedback network
   B. The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage
   C. The power supply voltage
   D. The PNP collector load

4BF-2.5 What is meant by the term ++++op-amp offset voltage++++?
   A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
   B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and
the input voltage required in the following stage
   C. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the
op-amp in a closed-loop condition
   D. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the
op-amp in an open-loop condition

4BF-2.6 What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-
amp?
   A. 100 ohms
   B. 1000 ohms
   C. Very low
   D. Very high

4BF-2.7 What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-
amp?
   A. Very low
   B. Very high
   C. 100 ohms
   D. 1000 ohms

4BF-3.1 What is a ++++phase-locked loop++++ circuit?
   A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector,
reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
   B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable
multivibrator
   C. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull
amplifier with a differential input
   D. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a
low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator

4BF-3.2 What functions are performed by a ++++phase-locked loop++++?
   A. Wideband AF and RF power amplification
   B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse
counter
   C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
   D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation

4BF-3.3 A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled
oscillator and a frequency standard. The difference between the
two frequencies produces an error voltage that changes the
voltage-controlled oscillator frequency. What is the name of the
circuit?
   A. A doubly balanced mixer
   B. A phase-locked loop
   C. A differential voltage amplifier
   D. A variable frequency oscillator

4BF-4.1 What do the initials ++++TTL++++ stand for?
   A. Resistor-transistor logic
   B. Transistor-transistor logic
   C. Diode-transistor logic
   D. Emitter-coupled logic

4BF-4.2 What is the recommended power supply voltage for ++++TTL++++
series integrated circuits?
      A. 12.00 volts
      B. 50.00 volts
      C. 5.00 volts
      D. 13.60 volts

4BF-4.3 What logic state do the inputs of a ++++TTL++++ device assume if
they are left open?
   A. A high logic state
   B. A low logic state
   C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide
consistent high or low logic states
   D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

4BF-4.4 What level of input voltage is ++++high++++ in a ++++TTL++++ device
operating with a 5-volt power supply?
   A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
   B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts
   C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts
   D. -5.0 to -2.0 volts

4BF-4.5 What level of input voltage is ++++low++++ in a ++++TTL++++ device
operating with a 5-volt power supply?
   A. -2.0 to -5.5 volts
   B. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
   C. -0.6 to 0.8 volts
   D. -0.8 to 0.4 volts

4BF-4.6 Why do circuits containing ++++TTL++++ devices have several
bypass capacitors per printed circuit board?
   A. To prevent RFI to receivers
   B. To keep the switching noise within the circuit, thus
eliminating RFI
   C. To filter out switching harmonics
   D. To prevent switching transients from appearing on the
supply line

4BF-5.1 What is a ++++CMOS IC++++?
   A. A chip with only P-channel transistors
   B. A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors
   C. A chip with only N-channel transistors
   D. A chip with only bipolar transistors

4BF-5.2 What is one major advantage of ++++CMOS++++ over other devices?
   A. Small size
   B. Low current consumption
   C. Low cost
   D. Ease of circuit design

4BF-5.3 Why do ++++CMOS++++ digital integrated circuits have high
immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
   A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
   B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power
supply voltage
   C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power
supply voltage
   D. Input signals are stronger

4BF-6.1 What is the name for a vacuum tube that is commonly found
in television cameras used for amateur television?
   A. A traveling-wave tube
   B. A klystron tube
   C. A vidicon tube
   D. A cathode-ray tube

4BF-6.2 How is the electron beam deflected in a ++++vidicon++++?
   A. By varying the beam voltage
   B. By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids
inside the tube
   C. By varying the beam current
   D. By varying electromagnetic fields

4BF-6.3 What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency
waves are to be displayed on the screen?
   A. Electromagnetic
   B. Tubular
   C. Radar
   D. Electrostatic

4BG-1A.1 What is a ++++flip-flop++++ circuit?
   A. A binary sequential logic element with one stable state
   B. A binary sequential logic element with eight stable states
   C. A binary sequential logic element with four stable states
   D. A binary sequential logic element with two stable states

4BG-1A.2 How many bits of information can be stored in a single
++++flip-flop++++ circuit?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BG-1A.3 What is a ++++bistable multivibrator++++ circuit?
   A. An "AND" gate
   B. An "OR" gate
   C. A flip-flop
   D. A clock

4BG-1A.4 How many output changes are obtained for every two
trigger pulses applied to the input of a ++++bistable T flip-flop++++
circuit?
   A. No output level changes
   B. One output level change
   C. Two output level changes
   D. Four output level changes

4BG-1A.5 The frequency of an AC signal can be divided
electronically by what type of digital circuit?
   A. A free-running multivibrator
   B. An OR gate
   C. A bistable multivibrator
   D. An astable multivibrator

4BG-1A.6 What type of digital IC is also known as a ++++latch++++?
   A. A decade counter
   B. An OR gate
   C. A flip-flop
   D. An op-amp

4BG-1A.7 How many ++++flip-flops++++ are required to divide a signal
frequency by 4?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 4
   D. 8

4BG-1B.1 What is an ++++astable multivibrator++++?
   A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states
   B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an
unstable state
   C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and
pass the other
   D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states

4BG-1B.2 What is a ++++monostable multivibrator++++?
   A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite
binary state and then returns after a set time to its original
state
   B. A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square wave
oscillating between 1 and 0
   C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0
or the 1 configuration
   D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage,
regardless of variations in the input voltage

4BG-1C.1 What is an ++++AND gate++++?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if
all inputs are logic "1"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if
all inputs are logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if only
one input is a logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all
inputs are logic "0"

4BG-1C.2 What is the schematic symbol for an ++++AND gate++++ [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BG-1C.3 What is a ++++NAND gate++++?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when
all inputs are logic "0"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only when
all inputs are logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if some
but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when
all inputs are logic "1"

4BG-1C.4 What is the schematic symbol for a ++++NAND gate++++ [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BG-1C.5 What is an ++++OR gate++++?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if any
input is logic "1"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any
input is logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if all
inputs are logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all
inputs are logic "0"

4BG-1C.6 What is the schematic symbol for an ++++OR gate++++ [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BG-1C.7 What is a ++++NOR gate++++?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if
all inputs are logic "0"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if
all inputs are logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any or
all inputs are logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if some
but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

4BG-1C.8 What is the schematic symbol for a ++++NOR gate++++ [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BG-1C.9 What is a ++++NOT gate++++?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "O" at its output when the
input is logic "1" and vice versa
   B. A circuit that does not allow data transmission when its
input is high
   C. A circuit that allows data transmission only when its input
is high
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output when the
input is logic "1" and vice versa

4BG-1C.10 What is the schematic symbol for a ++++NOT gate++++ [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4BG-1D.1 What is a ++++truth table++++?
   A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic
states of an op-amp
   B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's
output is true
   C. A list of input combinations and their corresponding
outputs that characterizes a digital device's function
   D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic
states of an op-amp

4BG-1D.2 In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to
represent a logic 1?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level

4BG-1D.3 In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to
represent a logic 0?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level

4BG-1D.4 In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to
represent a logic 1?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level

4BG-1D.5 In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to
represent a logic 0?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level

4BG-2A.1 What is a ++++crystal-controlled marker generator++++?
   A. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of
frequencies
   B. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the
craft's location relative to the inner and outer markers at
airports
   C. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and
amplitude can be varied over a wide range
   D. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of
reference signals at known frequency intervals

4BG-2A.2 What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz
++++crystal-controlled marker generator++++ to provide markers at 50 and
25 kHz?
   A. An emitter-follower
   B. Two frequency multipliers
   C. Two flip-flops
   D. A voltage divider

4BG-2B.1 What is the purpose of a ++++prescaler circuit++++?
   A. It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS
flip-flop
   B. It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can
display the operating frequency
   C. It prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit
   D. It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can
display the operating frequency

4BG-2B.2 What does the accuracy of a ++++frequency counter++++ depend on?
   A. The internal crystal reference
   B. A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output
   C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
   D. Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes

4BG-2B.3 How many states does a decade counter digital IC have?
   A. 6
   B. 10
   C. 15
   D. 20

4BG-2B.4 What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
   A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED
display
   B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses
   C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse
   D. Add two decimal numbers

4BG-3A.1 What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC
elements in an audio filter?
   A. Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than
can LC elements
   B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
   C. Op-amps are available in more styles and types than are LC
elements
   D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss


4BG-3A.2 What determines the gain and frequency characteristics
of an op-amp RC active filter?
   A. Values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-
amp
   B. Values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-
amp
   C. Voltage and frequency of DC input to the op-amp power
supply
   D. Regulated DC voltage output from the op-amp power supply

4BG-3A.3 What are the principle uses of an op-amp RC active
filter in amateur circuitry?
   A. Op-amp circuits are used as high-pass filters to block RFI
at the input to receivers
   B. Op-amp circuits are used as low-pass filters between
transmitters and transmission lines
   C. Op-amp circuits are used as filters for smoothing power-
supply output
   D. Op-amp circuits are used as audio filters for receivers

4BG-3B.1 What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC
active filter circuit?
   A. Electrolytic
   B. Disc ceramic
   C. Polystyrene
   D. Paper dielectric

4BG-3B.2 How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be
prevented in a multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
   A. Restrict both gain and Q
   B. Restrict gain, but increase Q
   C. Restrict Q, but increase gain
   D. Increase both gain and Q

4BG-3B.3 Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed
in an amateur receiver?
   A. In the IF strip, immediately before the detector
   B. In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or
phone jack
   C. Between the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier
   D. In the low-level audio stages

4BG-3B.4 What parameter must be selected when designing an audio
filter using an op-amp?
   A. Bandpass characteristics
   B. Desired current gain
   C. Temperature coefficient
   D. Output-offset overshoot

4BG-4A.1 What two factors determine the ++++sensitivity++++ of a
receiver?
   A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
   B. Cost and availability
   C. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
   D. Bandwidth and noise figure

4BG-4A.2 What is the limiting condition for ++++sensitivity++++ in a
communications receiver?
   A. The noise floor of the receiver
   B. The power-supply output ripple
   C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
   D. The input impedance to the detector

4BG-4A.3 What is the theoretical minimum ++++noise floor++++ of a
receiver with a 400-hertz bandwidth?
   A. -141 dBm
   B. -148 dBm
   C. -174 dBm
   D. -180 dBm

4BG-4B.1 How can ++++selectivity++++ be achieved in the front-end
circuitry of a communications receiver?
   A. By using an audio filter
   B. By using a preselector
   C. By using an additional RF amplifier stage
   D. By using an additional IF amplifier stage

4BG-4B.2 A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is
optimum for what type of amateur signals?
   A. CW
   B. SSB voice
   C. Double-sideband AM voice
   D. FSK RTTY

4BG-4B.3 What occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter
bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver?
   A. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
   B. Output-offset overshoot
   C. Cross-modulation distortion
   D. Filter ringing

4BG-4B.4 What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF
circuitry of an amateur RTTY receiver?
   A. 100 Hz
   B. 300 Hz
   C. 6000 Hz
   D. 2400 Hz

4BG-4B.5 A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is
optimum for what type of amateur signals?
   A. SSB voice
   B. Double-sideband AM
   C. CW
   D. FSK RTTY

4BG-4B.6 What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF
circuitry of a single-sideband phone receiver?
   A. 1 kHz
   B. 2.4 kHz
   C. 4.2 kHz
   D. 4.8 kHz

4BG-4B.7 What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter
bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
   A. Output-offset overshoot
   B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
   C. Thermal-noise distortion
   D. Filter ringing

4BG-4B.8 How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section
compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?
   A. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the
received-signal bandwidth
   B. Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the received-
signal bandwidth
   C. Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the
received-signal bandwidth
   D. Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the
received-signal bandwidth

4BG-4B.9 What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF
circuitry of an FM-phone receiver?
   A. 1 kHz
   B. 2.4 kHz
   C. 4.2 kHz
   D. 15 kHz

4BG-4B.10 How can selectivity be achieved in the IF circuitry of
a communications receiver?
   A. Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the
local oscillator circuitry
   B. Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor
followed by a capacitor of the proper value
   C. Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the
audio stage only
   D. Incorporate a high-Q filter

4BG-4C.1 What is meant by the ++++dynamic range++++ of a communications
receiver?
   A. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest
frequency to which the receiver can be tuned
   B. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the
receiver, referenced to one milliwatt
   C. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the
largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion
products
   D. The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the
highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning
knob

4BG-4C.2 What is the term for the ratio between the largest
tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible
signal?
   A. Intermodulation distortion
   B. Noise floor
   C. Noise figure
   D. Dynamic range

4BG-4C.3 What type of problems are caused by poor ++++dynamic range++++
in a communications receiver?
   A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization
from strong adjacent signals
   B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and
loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be
transmitted
   C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient
audio power to operate the speaker
   D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all
but the strongest received signals

4BG-4C.4 The ability of a communications receiver to perform well
in the presence of strong signals outside the amateur band of
interest is indicated by what parameter?
   A. Noise figure
   B. Blocking dynamic range
   C. Signal-to-noise ratio
   D. Audio output

4BG-4D.1 What is meant by the term ++++noise figure++++ of a
communications receiver?
   A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna
   B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed
from the carrier frequency
   C. The level of noise generated in the front end and
succeeding stages of a receiver
   D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at
frequencies close to the desired one

4BG-4D.2 Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its
++++noise figure++++?
   A. The audio stage
   B. The IF strip
   C. The RF stage
   D. The local oscillator

4BG-5A.1 What is an ++++inverting op-amp circuit++++?
   A. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase
   B. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input and output signals are in phase
   C. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase
   D. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input impedance is held at zero, while the output impedance is
high

4BG-5B.1 What is a ++++noninverting op-amp circuit++++?
   A. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase
   B. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input and output signals are in phase
   C. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase
   D. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the
input impedance is held at zero while the output impedance is
high

4BG-5C.1 What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in
Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 1000 ohms and Rf is 100 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 0.01
   B. 1
   C. 10
   D. 100

4BG-5C.2 What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in
Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 1800 ohms and Rf is 68 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 0.03
   C. 38
   D. 76

4BG-5C.3 What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in
Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 3300 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 28
   B. 14
   C. 7
   D. 0.07

4BG-5C.4 What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in
Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 10 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 0.00021
   B. 9400
   C. 4700
   D. 2350

4BG-5D.1 How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational
amplifier vary with frequency?
   A. The gain increases linearly with increasing frequency
   B. The gain decreases linearly with increasing frequency
   C. The gain decreases logarithmically with increasing
frequency
   D. The gain does not vary with frequency

4BG-6.1 What determines the input impedance in a FET common-
source amplifier?
   A. The input impedance is essentially determined by the
resistance between the drain and substrate
   B. The input impedance is essentially determined by the
resistance between the source and drain
   C. The input impedance is essentially determined by the gate
biasing network
   D. The input impedance is essentially determined by the
resistance between the source and substrate

4BG-6.2 What determines the output impedance in a FET common-
source amplifier?
   A. The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain
resistor
   B. The output impedance is essentially determined by the input
impedance of the FET
   C. The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain
supply voltage
   D. The output impedance is essentially determined by the gate
supply voltage

4BG-7.1 What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in
Figure 4BG-7 when L is 10 microhenrys, Cf is 156 picofarads, and
Cv is 50 picofarads maximum and 2 picofarads minimum?
   A. 3508 through 4004 kHz
   B. 6998 through 7360 kHz
   C. 13.396 through 14.402 MHz
   D. 49.998 through 54.101 MHz

4BG-7.2 What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in
Figure 4BG-7 when L is 30 microhenrys, Cf is 200 picofarads, and
Cv is 80 picofarads maximum and 10 picofarads minimum?
   A. 1737 through 2005 kHz
   B. 3507 through 4004 kHz
   C. 7002 through 7354 kHz
   D. 14.990 through 15.020 MHz

4BG-8.1 What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor?
   A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
   B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC
to ground
   C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance
path to ground
   D. It acts as a voltage divider

4BG-8.2 What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?
   A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current
   B. It blocks alternating current and passes direct current
   C. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
   D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit

4BH-1A.1 In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does
the modulating signal vary?
   A. Pulse duration
   B. Pulse frequency
   C. Pulse amplitude
   D. Pulse intensity

4BH-1A.2 What is the type of modulation in which the modulating
signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse?
   A. Amplitude modulation
   B. Frequency modulation
   C. Pulse-width modulation
   D. Pulse-height modulation

4BH-1B.1 In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter
does the modulating signal vary?
   A. The number of pulses per second
   B. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses
   C. The duration of the pulses
   D. The time at which each pulse occurs

4BH-1B.2 Why is the transmitter peak power in a pulse modulation
system much greater than its average power?
   A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
   B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
   C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes
are generated within the modulator
   D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are
also amplitude modulated

4BH-1B.3 What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-
width modulation system?
   A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
   B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
   C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
   D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending
on the voice waveform at that instant

4BH-2A.1 What digital code consists of elements having unequal
length?
   A. ASCII
   B. AX.25
   C. Baudot
   D. Morse code

4BH-2B.1 What digital communications system is well suited for
meteor-scatter communications?
   A. ACSSB
   B. AMTOR
   C. Packet radio
   D. Spread spectrum

4BH-2B.2 The International Organization for Standardization has
developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio
communications structure. What level is responsible for the
actual transmission of data and handshaking signals?
   A. The physical layer
   B. The transport layer
   C. The communications layer
   D. The synchronization layer

4BH-2B.3 The International Organization for Standardization has
developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio
communications structure. What level arranges the bits into
frames and controls data flow?
   A. The transport layer
   B. The link layer
   C. The communications layer
   D. The synchronization layer

4BH-2C.1 What is one advantage of using the ASCII code, with its
larger character set, instead of the Baudot code?
   A. ASCII includes built-in error-correction features
   B. ASCII characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot
characters
   C. It is possible to transmit upper and lower case text
   D. The larger character set allows store-and-forward control
characters to be added to a message

4BH-2D.1 What type of error control system does ++++Mode A AMTOR++++ use?
   A. Each character is sent twice
   B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check
sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
   C. Mode A AMTOR does not include an error control system
   D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when
needed

4BH-2D.2 What type of error control system does ++++Mode B AMTOR++++ use?
   A. Each character is sent twice
   B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check
sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
   C. Mode B AMTOR does not include an error control system
   D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when
needed

4BH-2E.1 What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY data
pulse?
   A. 11 milliseconds
   B. 40 milliseconds
   C. 31 milliseconds
   D. 22 milliseconds

4BH-2E.2 What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY start
pulse?
   A. 11 milliseconds
   B. 22 milliseconds
   C. 31 milliseconds
   D. 40 milliseconds

4BH-2E.3 What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY stop
pulse?
   A. 11 milliseconds
   B. 18 milliseconds
   C. 31 milliseconds
   D. 40 milliseconds

4BH-2E.4 What is the primary advantage of AMTOR over Baudot RTTY?
   A. AMTOR characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot
characters
   B. AMTOR includes an error detection system
   C. Surplus radioteletype machines that use the AMTOR code are
readily available
   D. Photographs can be transmitted using AMTOR

4BH-2F.1 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
45-baud Baudot emission F1B transmission?
   A. 45 Hz
   B. 249 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz

4BH-2F.2 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
45-baud Baudot emission J2B transmission?
   A. 45 Hz
   B. 249 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz

4BH-2F.3 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
74-baud Baudot emission F1B transmission?
   A. 250 Hz
   B. 278 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz

4BH-2F.4 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
74-baud Baudot emission J2B transmission?
   A. 250 Hz
   B. 278 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz

4BH-2F.5 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM
international Morse code emission A1A transmission?
   A. Approximately 13 Hz
   B. Approximately 26 Hz
   C. Approximately 52 Hz
   D. Approximately 104 Hz

4BH-2F.6 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM
international Morse code emission J2A transmission?
   A. Approximately 13 Hz
   B. Approximately 26 Hz
   C. Approximately 52 Hz
   D. Approximately 104 Hz

4BH-2F.7 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-hertz shift,
1200-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
   A. 1000 Hz
   B. 1200 Hz
   C. 440 Hz
   D. 2400 Hz

4BH-2F.8 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-hertz
frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
   A. 15.36 kHz
   B. 9.6 kHz
   C. 4.8 kHz
   D. 5.76 kHz

4BH-2F.9 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-hertz
frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission?
   A. 15.36 kHz
   B. 9.6 kHz
   C. 4.8 kHz
   D. 5.76 kHz

4BH-2F.10 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM
international Morse code emission A1A transmission?
   A. Approximately 5 Hz
   B. Approximately 10 Hz
   C. Approximately 20 Hz
   D. Approximately 40 Hz

4BH-2F.11 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM
international Morse code emission J2A transmission?
   A. Approximately 5 Hz
   B. Approximately 10 Hz
   C. Approximately 20 Hz
   D. Approximately 40 Hz

4BH-2F.12 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
110-baud ASCII emission F1B transmission?
   A. 304 Hz
   B. 314 Hz
   C. 608 Hz
   D. 628 Hz

4BH-2F.13 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
110-baud ASCII emission J2B transmission?
   A. 304 Hz
   B. 314 Hz
   C. 608 Hz
   D. 628 Hz

4BH-2F.14 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift,
300-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
   A. 0 Hz
   B. 0.3 kHz
   C. 0.5 kHz
   D. 1.0 kHz

4BH-2F.15 What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-hertz shift,
300-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission?
   A. 0 Hz
   B. 0.3 kHz
   C. 0.5 kHz
   D. 1.0 kHz

4BH-3.1 What is ++++amplitude compandored single sideband++++?
   A. Reception of single sideband with a conventional CW
receiver
   B. Reception of single sideband with a conventional FM
receiver
   C. Single sideband incorporating speech compression at the
transmitter and speech expansion at the receiver
   D. Single sideband incorporating speech expansion at the
transmitter and speech compression at the receiver

4BH-3.2 What is meant by ++++compandoring++++?
   A. Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at
the receiver
   B. Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length
modulation
   C. Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a
single-sideband signal
   D. Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by
converting it to a pulse-modulated signal

4BH-3.3 What is the purpose of a ++++pilot tone++++ in an amplitude
compandored single sideband system?
   A. It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
   B. It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
   C. It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered
interference
   D. It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation
characteristic of the band

4BH-3.4 What is the approximate frequency of the ++++pilot tone++++ in an
amplitude compandored single sideband system?
   A. 1 kHz
   B. 5 MHz
   C. 455 kHz
   D. 3 kHz

4BH-3.5 How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a
given frequency band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband
systems over conventional FM-phone systems?
   A. 2
   B. 4
   C. 8
   D. 16

4BH-4.1 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications
system in which the RF carrier varies according to some
predetermined sequence?
   A. Amplitude compandored single sideband
   B. AMTOR
   C. Time-domain frequency modulation
   D. Spread spectrum communication

4BH-4.2 What is the term used to describe a ++++spread spectrum
communications system++++ where the center frequency of a
conventional carrier is altered many times per second in
accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
   A. Frequency hopping
   B. Direct sequence
   C. Time-domain frequency modulation
   D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum

4BH-4.3 What term is used to describe a ++++spread spectrum
communications system++++ in which a very fast binary bit stream is
used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
   A. Frequency hopping
   B. Direct sequence
   C. Binary phase-shift keying
   D. Phase compandored spread spectrum

4BH-5.1 What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum
positive excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
   A. Peak-to-peak voltage
   B. Inverse peak negative voltage
   C. RMS voltage
   D. Peak positive voltage

4BH-5.2 What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum
negative excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
   A. Peak-to-peak voltage
   B. Inverse peak positive voltage
   C. RMS voltage
   D. Peak negative voltage

4BH-6A.1 What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to
measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
   A. Peak-to-peak voltage
   B. RMS voltage
   C. Average voltage
   D. DC voltage

4BH-6A.2 What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak
voltage and the peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical wave
form?
   A. 1:1
   B. 2:1
   C. 3:1
   D. 4:1

4BH-6A.3 What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating
the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
   A. Peak voltage
   B. Average voltage
   C. RMS voltage
   D. Resting voltage

4BI-1A.1 What is an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
   A. A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
   B. In the northern hemisphere, an antenna whose directive
pattern is constant in southern directions
   C. An antenna high enough in the air that its directive
pattern is substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it
   D. An antenna whose directive pattern is substantially
unaffected by the spacing of the elements

4BI-1B.1 When is it useful to refer to an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
   A. When comparing the gains of directional antennas
   B. When testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio
   C. When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the
transmission in a southerly direction
   D. When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter

4BI-1B.2 What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison
for antenna measurements?
   A. Quarter-wave vertical
   B. Yagi
   C. Bobtail curtain
   D. Isotropic radiator

4BI-1B.3 What purpose does an ++++isotropic radiator++++ serve?
   A. It is used to compare signal strengths (at a distant point)
of different transmitters
   B. It is used as a reference for antenna gain measurements
   C. It is used as a dummy load for tuning transmitters
   D. It is used to measure the standing-wave-ratio on a
transmission line

4BI-1B.4 How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an
++++isotropic radiator++++?
   A. About 1.5 dB
   B. About 2.1 dB
   C. About 3.0 dB
   D. About 6.0 dB

4BI-1B.5 How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength
dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
   A. About 3.9 dB
   B. About 6.0 dB
   C. About 8.1 dB
   D. About 10.0 dB

4BI-1B.6 How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength
dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
   A. About 6.1 dB
   B. About 9.9 dB
   C. About 12.0 dB
   D. About 14.1 dB

4BI-1C.1 What is the antenna pattern for an ++++isotropic radiator++++?
   A. A figure-8
   B. A unidirectional cardioid
   C. A parabola
   D. A sphere

4BI-1C.2 What type of directivity pattern does an ++++isotropic
radiator++++ have?
   A. A figure-8
   B. A unidirectional cardioid
   C. A parabola
   D. A sphere

4BI-2A.1 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
   A. Unidirectional cardioid
   B. Omnidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

4BI-2A.2 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees
out of phase?
   A. Unidirectional cardioid
   B. Figure-8 end-fire
   C. Figure-8 broadside
   D. Omnidirectional

4BI-2A.3 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

4BI-2A.4 How far apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas be spaced in order to produce a figure-8 pattern that is
broadside to the plane of the verticals when fed in phase?
   A. 1/8 wavelength
   B. 1/4 wavelength
   C. 1/2 wavelength
   D. 1 wavelength

4BI-2A.5 How many 1/2 wavelengths apart should two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas be spaced to produce a figure-8 pattern that is
in line with the vertical antennas when they are fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
   A. One half wavelength apart
   B. Two half wavelengths apart
   C. Three half wavelengths apart
   D. Four half wavelengths apart

4BI-2A.6 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

4BI-2A.7 What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

4BI-2A.8 What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

4BI-2A.9 What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
   A. Substantially unidirectional
   B. Elliptical
   C. Cardioid unidirectional
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

4BI-3A.1 What is a ++++resonant rhombic antenna++++?
   A. A unidirectional antenna, each of whose sides is equal to
half a wavelength and which is terminated in a resistance equal
to its characteristic impedance
   B. A bidirectional antenna open at the end opposite that to
which the transmission line is connected and with each side
approximately equal to one wavelength
   C. An antenna with an LC network at each vertex (other than
that to which the transmission line is connected) tuned to
resonate at the operating frequency
   D. A high-frequency antenna, each of whose sides contains
traps for changing the resonance to match the band in use

4BI-3B.1 What is a ++++nonresonant rhombic antenna++++?
   A. A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal
to its characteristic impedance
   B. An open-ended bidirectional antenna
   C. An antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency
of the intended band of operation
   D. A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent
sides and the long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna

4BI-3B.2 What are the advantages of a ++++nonresonant rhombic
antenna++++?
   A. Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back
ratio
   B. High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
   C. Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact
size
   D. Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide
frequency range

4BI-3B.3 What are the disadvantages of a ++++nonresonant rhombic
antenna++++?
   A. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a
narrow bandwidth
   B. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a
low front-to-back ratio
   C. It requires a large amount of aluminum tubing and has a low
front-to-back ratio
   D. It requires a large area and four sturdy supports for
proper installation

4BI-3B.4 What is the characteristic impedance at the input of a
++++nonresonant rhombic antenna++++?
   A. 50 to 55 ohms
   B. 70 to 75 ohms
   C. 300 to 350 ohms
   D. 700 to 800 ohms

4BI-3C.1 What is the effect of a ++++terminating resistor++++ on a
rhombic antenna?
   A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back
to the transmitter
   B. It changes the radiation pattern from essentially
bidirectional to essentially unidirectional
   C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to
vertical polarization
   D. It decreases the ground loss

4BI-3C.2 What should be the value of the ++++terminating resistor++++ on
a rhombic antenna?
   A. About 50 ohms
   B. About 75 ohms
   C. About 800 ohms
   D. About 1800 ohms

4BI-4A.1 What factors determine the receiving antenna gain
required at an amateur station in earth operation?
   A. Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
   B. Length of transmission line and impedance match between
receiver and transmission line
   C. Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or
absence of RF amplifier stages
   D. Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit

4BI-4A.2 What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur
station in earth operation?
   A. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver
sensitivity
   B. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
   C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground
receiving antenna
   D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise
ratio, satellite transmitter power

4BI-4A.3 What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur
station in telecommand operation?
   A. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
   B. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver
sensitivity
   C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground
receiving antenna
   D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise
ratio, satellite transmitter power

4BI-4A.4 How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna
change when the operating frequency is doubled?
   A. Gain does not change
   B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
   C. Gain increases 6 dB
   D. Gain increases 3 dB

4BI-4B.1 What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain
is increased?
   A. The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is
increased
   B. The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is
increased
   C. The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain of the
antenna
   D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased

4BI-4B.2 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 10.1 degrees
   B. 20.3 degrees
   C. 45.0 degrees
   D. 60.9 degrees

4BI-4B.3 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 30 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 3.2 degrees
   B. 6.4 degrees
   C. 37 degrees
   D. 60.4 degrees

4BI-4B.4 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 15 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 72 degrees
   B. 52 degrees
   C. 36.1 degrees
   D. 3.61 degrees

4BI-4B.5 What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna
with a gain of 12 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 34.8 degrees
   B. 45.0 degrees
   C. 58.0 degrees
   D. 51.0 degrees

4BI-4C.1 How is circular polarization produced using linearly-
polarized antennas?
   A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an
array with the respective elements in parallel planes
   B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the
respective elements in parallel planes
   C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the
driven elements in the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of phase
   D. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the
driven elements in the same plane, fed in phase

4BI-4C.2 Why does an antenna system for ++++earth operation++++ (for
communications through a satellite) need to have rotators for
both azimuth and elevation control?
   A. In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid
terrestrial interference
   B. Satellite antennas require two rotators because they are so
large and heavy
   C. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
   D. The elevation rotator points the antenna at the satellite
and the azimuth rotator changes the antenna polarization

4BI-5.1 What term describes a method used to match a high-
impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by
connecting the line to the driven element in two places, spaced a
fraction of a wavelength on each side of the driven element
center?
   A. The gamma matching system
   B. The delta matching system
   C. The omega matching system
   D. The stub matching system

4BI-5.2 What term describes an unbalanced feed system in which
the driven element is fed both at the center of that element and
a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
   A. The gamma matching system
   B. The delta matching system
   C. The omega matching system
   D. The stub matching system

4BI-5.3 What term describes a method of antenna impedance
matching that uses a short section of transmission line connected
to the antenna feed line near the antenna and perpendicular to
the feed line?
   A. The gamma matching system
   B. The delta matching system
   C. The omega matching system
   D. The stub matching system

4BI-5.4 What should be the approximate capacitance of the
resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-
wavelength dipole antenna for the 20-meter wavelength band?
   A. 70 pF
   B. 140 pF
   C. 200 pF
   D. 0.2 pF

4BI-5.5 What should be the approximate capacitance of the
resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-
wavelength dipole antenna for the 10-meter wavelength band?
   A. 70 pF
   B. 140 pF
   C. 200 pF
   D. 0.2 pF

4BI-6A.1  What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
   A. A capacitive reactance
   B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   C. An inductive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage

4BI-6A.2 What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
   A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   B. An inductive reactance
   C. A capacitive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator
stage

4BI-6B.1 What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line
   D. The same as the generator output impedance

4BI-6B.2 What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage

4BI-6C.1 What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
   A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   B. An inductive reactance
   C. A capacitive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage

4BI-6C.2 What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
   A. A capacitive reactance
   B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   C. An inductive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator
stage

4BI-6D.1 What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted
at the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   D. The same as the output impedance of the generator

4BI-6D.2 What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength
transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at
the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   D. The same as the output impedance of the generator




Answers

4BA-1A.1     B
4BA-1A.2     A
4BA-1A.3     A
4BA-1A.4     D
4BA-1A.5     C
4BA-1B.1     A
4BA-1B.2     B
4BA-1B.3     D
4BA-1B.4     D
4BA-1C.1     B
4BA-1C.2     B
4BA-1C.3     A
4BA-1D.1     B
4BA-1E.1     A
4BA-1E.2     B
4BA-2A.1     A
4BA-2B.1     B
4BA-2B.2     A
4BA-2C.1     C
4BA-2D.1     C
4BA-3A.1     B
4BA-3B.1     A
4BA-3C.1     C
4BA-3D.1     D
4BA-3E.1     A
4BA-3F.1     D
4BA-3G.1     A
4BA-3H.1     C
4BA-3H.2     A
4BA-3I.1     C
4BA-4A.1     C
4BA-4B.1     A
4BA-4C-1.1   B
4BA-4C-2.1   D
4BA-4D-1.1   C
4BA-4E-1.1   D
4BA-4E-2.1   D
4BA-4E-4.1   D
4BA-4E-4.2   C
4BA-4E-4.3   D
4BA-4F-1.1   A
4BA-4F-2.1   A
4BA-5A.1     C
4BA-5B.1     B
4BA-5C.1     A
4BA-5C.2     A
4BA-5C.3     A
4BA-5C.4     A
4BA-5C.5     A
4BA-5C.6     A
4BA-5D.1     B
4BA-5E.1     A
4BA-5E.2     A
4BA-5F.1     D
4BA-5F.2     B
4BA-5F.3     A
4BA-5F.4     D
4BA-5G.1     A
4BA-5G.2     B
4BA-5G.3     A
4BA-5G.4     C
4BA-5G.5     B
4BA-5G.6     A
4BA-6A.1     B
4BA-6A.2     B
4BA-6B.1     B
4BA-6B.2     B
4BA-6B.3     B
4BA-6B.4     B
4BA-6B.5     A
4BA-6C.1     D
4BA-6C.2     A
4BA-6C.3     C
4BA-6D.1     D
4BA-6D.2     A
4BA-7A-1.1   A
4BA-7A-1.2   D
4BA-7A-1.3   A
4BA-7A-1.4   C
4BA-7A-1.5   C
4BA-7A-1.6   D
4BA-7A-1.7   C
4BA-7A-1.8   D
4BA-7A-2.1   A
4BA-7A-2.2   D
4BA-7A-2.3   A
4BA-7A-2.4   A
4BA-7A-2.5   D
4BA-7A-2.6   D
4BA-7B.1     D
4BA-7B.2     D
4BA-7B.3     A
4BA-7B.4     C
4BA-7C.1     A
4BA-7C.2     B
4BA-7C.3     B
4BA-7C.4     D
4BA-7C.5     C
4BA-7C.6     B
4BA-7C.7     A
4BA-7C.8     C
4BA-7C.9     C
4BA-7D.1     D
4BA-7D.2     A
4BA-7D.3     C
4BA-7D.4     B
4BA-7D.5     B
4BA-7E.1     C
4BA-7E.2     B
4BA-7E.3     A
4BA-7E.4     D
4BA-7E.5     A
4BA-7E.6     B
4BA-7F.1     A
4BA-7F.2     B
4BA-7F.3     D
4BA-7F.4     B
4BB-1A.1     C
4BB-1A.2     A
4BB-1A.3     C
4BB-1B.1     D
4BB-1B.2     B
4BB-1B.3     B
4BB-1B.4     B
4BB-1C.1     B
4BB-1C.2     A
4BB-1D.1     D
4BB-1D.2     A
4BB-1D.3     B
4BB-2A.1     A
4BB-2A.2     C
4BB-2A.3     C
4BB-2A.4     B
4BB-2A.5     A
4BB-2A.6     D
4BB-2A.7     C
4BB-2A.8     B
4BB-2A.9     C
4BC-1.1      D
4BC-1.2      B
4BC-1.3      A
4BC-1.4      D
4BC-1.5      B
4BC-2.1      B
4BC-2.2      C
4BC-3.1      A
4BC-3.2      C
4BC-3.3      C
4BC-4.1      C
4BC-5.1      D
4BD-1A.1     C
4BD-1A.2     D
4BD-1A.3     A
4BD-1B.1     A
4BD-1B.2     B
4BD-2A.1     D
4BD-2A.2     C
4BD-2A.3     D
4BD-2B.1     A
4BD-3A.1     A
4BD-3A.2     A
4BD-3A.3     C
4BD-3A.4     D
4BD-3B.1     B
4BD-3B.2     D
4BD-3C.1     B
4BD-3D.1     C
4BD-4.1      A
4BD-4.2      B
4BD-4.3      C
4BD-4.4      D
4BD-4.5      A
4BD-4.6      D
4BD-4.7      C
4BD-4.8      D
4BD-4.9      B
4BD-4.10     C
4BE-1.1      B
4BE-1.2      A
4BE-1.3      D
4BE-1.4      C
4BE-1.5      D
4BE-1.6      A
4BE-1.7      B
4BE-1.8      D
4BE-2A.1     D
4BE-2A.2     C
4BE-2A.3     B
4BE-2A.4     A
4BE-2A.5     D
4BE-2A.6     D
4BE-2B.1     C
4BE-2B.2     D
4BE-2B.3     C
4BE-2B.4     A
4BE-2B.5     B
4BE-2B.6     B
4BE-2B.7     C
4BE-2B.8     C
4BE-2B.9     B
4BE-2B.10    D
4BE-2B.11    A
4BE-2B.12    A
4BE-2B.13    B
4BE-2B.14    A
4BE-2B.15    D
4BE-2B.16    A
4BE-2B.17    C
4BE-2B.18    D
4BE-2B.19    D
4BE-2B.20    A
4BE-2B.21    D
4BE-2B.22    C
4BE-3.1      A
4BE-3.2      B
4BE-3.3      C
4BE-3.4      C
4BE-3.5      B
4BE-3.6      C
4BE-3.7      D
4BE-3.8      C
4BE-3.9      B
4BE-4.1      A
4BE-4.2      B
4BE-4.3      A
4BE-4.4      D
4BE-4.5      A
4BE-5.1      B
4BE-5.2      C
4BE-5.3      D
4BE-5.4      A
4BE-5.5      A
4BE-6A.1     B
4BE-6A.2     C
4BE-6A.3     D
4BE-6A.4     B
4BE-6A.5     C
4BE-6B.1     B
4BE-6B.2     C
4BE-6B.3     B
4BE-6B.4     A
4BE-6B.5     D
4BF-1A.1     D
4BF-1B.1     A
4BF-1C.1     A
4BF-1C.2     B
4BF-1C.3     C
4BF-1C.4     D
4BF-1C.5     D
4BF-1D.1     C
4BF-1D.2     A
4BF-1E.1     A
4BF-1E.2     D
4BF-1E.3     D
4BF-1F.1     B
4BF-1F.2     A
4BF-2.1      A
4BF-2.2      A
4BF-2.3      B
4BF-2.4      A
4BF-2.5      C
4BF-2.6      D
4BF-2.7      A
4BF-3.1      D
4BF-3.2      D
4BF-3.3      B
4BF-4.1      B
4BF-4.2      C
4BF-4.3      A
4BF-4.4      A
4BF-4.5      C
4BF-4.6      D
4BF-5.1      B
4BF-5.2      B
4BF-5.3      C
4BF-6.1      C
4BF-6.2      D
4BF-6.3      D
4BG-1A.1     D
4BG-1A.2     A
4BG-1A.3     C
4BG-1A.4     C
4BG-1A.5     C
4BG-1A.6     C
4BG-1A.7     B
4BG-1B.1     D
4BG-1B.2     A
4BG-1C.1     A
4BG-1C.2     A
4BG-1C.3     D
4BG-1C.4     B
4BG-1C.5     A
4BG-1C.6     D
4BG-1C.7     C
4BG-1C.8     D
4BG-1C.9     A
4BG-1C.10    A
4BG-1D.1     C
4BG-1D.2     D
4BG-1D.3     A
4BG-1D.4     A
4BG-1D.5     D
4BG-2A.1     D
4BG-2A.2     C
4BG-2B.1     D
4BG-2B.2     A
4BG-2B.3     B
4BG-2B.4     B
4BG-3A.1     D
4BG-3A.2     B
4BG-3A.3     D
4BG-3B.1     C
4BG-3B.2     A
4BG-3B.3     D
4BG-3B.4     A
4BG-4A.1     D
4BG-4A.2     A
4BG-4A.3     B
4BG-4B.1     B
4BG-4B.2     B
4BG-4B.3     D
4BG-4B.4     B
4BG-4B.5     B
4BG-4B.6     B
4BG-4B.7     B
4BG-4B.8     A
4BG-4B.9     D
4BG-4B.10    D
4BG-4C.1     C
4BG-4C.2     D
4BG-4C.3     A
4BG-4C.4     B
4BG-4D.1     C
4BG-4D.2     C
4BG-5A.1     A
4BG-5B.1     B
4BG-5C.1     D
4BG-5C.2     C
4BG-5C.3     B
4BG-5C.4     C
4BG-5D.1     D
4BG-6.1      C
4BG-6.2      A
4BG-7.1      A
4BG-7.2      A
4BG-8.1      C
4BG-8.2      A
4BH-1A.1     A
4BH-1A.2     C
4BH-1B.1     D
4BH-1B.2     A
4BH-1B.3     C
4BH-2A.1     D
4BH-2B.1     C
4BH-2B.2     A
4BH-2B.3     B
4BH-2C.1     C
4BH-2D.1     D
4BH-2D.2     A
4BH-2E.1     D
4BH-2E.2     B
4BH-2E.3     C
4BH-2E.4     B
4BH-2F.1     B
4BH-2F.2     B
4BH-2F.3     B
4BH-2F.4     B
4BH-2F.5     C
4BH-2F.6     C
4BH-2F.7     D
4BH-2F.8     A
4BH-2F.9     A
4BH-2F.10    C
4BH-2F.11    C
4BH-2F.12    B
4BH-2F.13    B
4BH-2F.14    C
4BH-2F.15    C
4BH-3.1      C
4BH-3.2      A
4BH-3.3      A
4BH-3.4      D
4BH-3.5      B
4BH-4.1      D
4BH-4.2      A
4BH-4.3      B
4BH-5.1      D
4BH-5.2      D
4BH-6A.1     A
4BH-6A.2     B
4BH-6A.3     A
4BI-1A.1     A
4BI-1B.1     A
4BI-1B.2     D
4BI-1B.3     B
4BI-1B.4     B
4BI-1B.5     A
4BI-1B.6     B
4BI-1C.1     D
4BI-1C.2     D
4BI-2A.1     D
4BI-2A.2     A
4BI-2A.3     C
4BI-2A.4     C
4BI-2A.5     A
4BI-2A.6     D
4BI-2A.7     D
4BI-2A.8     A
4BI-2A.9     B
4BI-3A.1     B
4BI-3B.1     A
4BI-3B.2     A
4BI-3B.3     D
4BI-3B.4     D
4BI-3C.1     B
4BI-3C.2     C
4BI-4A.1     A
4BI-4A.2     A
4BI-4A.3     B
4BI-4A.4     C
4BI-4B.1     D
4BI-4B.2     B
4BI-4B.3     B
4BI-4B.4     C
4BI-4B.5     D
4BI-4C.1     C
4BI-4C.2     C
4BI-5.1      B
4BI-5.2      A
4BI-5.3      D
4BI-5.4      B
4BI-5.5      A
4BI-6A.1     C
4BI-6A.2     C
4BI-6B.1     A
4BI-6B.2     B
4BI-6C.1     C
4BI-6C.2     C
4BI-6D.1     B
4BI-6D.2     A